[ Pobierz całość w formacie PDF ]
As the firstborn Son of all Creation, Jesus is unique among all of God's sons,
in that he was the first and only creature directly created by Jehovah. All
[others] were created through the Son. That is why, in fact, Jesus is called
the only-begotten Son of God. Jesus is also the first creature raised from the
dead to immortality. That's why the Bible calls him the "firstborn from the
dead." At Colossians 1:18, Paul said of Christ: "He is the beginning, the
firstborn from the dead, that he might become the one who is first in all
things." The next verse goes on to show that it pleased God to make his son
first in all things.
Jesus is "last" in the sense that he will never be surpassed in glory by any
fellow creature. He will always be the closest to God.
34. Since the WTS prohibits the use of blood transfusions, why does it permit
the infusion of albumin, clotting factors, and gamma globulins, all of which are
components of human blood and are derived from human blood? Since Acts
15:29 clearly refers to the old Jewish law of not EATING blood (Gen 9:4, Lev
3:17, Deut 12:16), and since the WTS has changed its teachings on other major
health related issues like vaccinations, organ transplantations, and its
opposition to tonsillectomies (Golden Age, 4/7/26, pg 438), etc. and simply calls
these changes "New Light", how can you be sure they won't some day change
their teachings on blood transfusions and refer to that change as "New Light"
also?
The Watchtower may very well drop the prohibition on taking blood
transfusions some day. It is not likely, but neither is it out of the question
either. It doesn't really matter though whether they do or don't. Jehovah's
Witnesses know what the Bible teaches on that topic and each of us that are
spiritually mature know that we will eventually stand before Jehovah in
judgment.
35. If the NWT is the most accurate word for word translation of the Bible, why
does it alter the written word of God by adding the words itself and [true]
in Eccl 12:7 when these words don t exist in the Hebrew? How would this verse
read without the addition of these words? What does scripture say about adding
42
words to the Bible? See Prov 30:5-6. If what the WTS teaches about the spirit of
man is correct, then how can the spirit of a man return to God after the body
dies and returns to the earth?
The NWT has not altered the Word of God. The bracketed word [itself] is
innocuous and changes nothing. As for the expression [true] God: The New
World Translation explains in its appendix that there are several hundred
places in Scripture where the Hebrew word for God, Elohim, is preceded by
the definite article. When that occurs in reference to Jehovah, the NWT
always uses the expression "[true] God" in order to make the distinction.
Literally the expression should say "the God," but that is an awkward
expression in English. So, the translators used a word that distinguishes the
expression "the God" from the ordinary use of Elohim without the definite
article. As for the spirit returning to the true God who gave it, that simply
means that the dead person's future life's prospects rest with God. In the
NIV, Ecclesiastes 12:7 reads: "and the dust returns to the ground it came
from, and the spirit returns to God who gave it." The CEV reads: "So our
bodies return to the earth, and the life-giving breath returns to God"
The Message Bible reads: "The body is put back in the same ground it
came from. The spirit returns to God, who first breathed it."
The NWT reads: "The dust returns to the earth, just as it happened to be
and the spirit itself returns to the [true] God who gave it."
As any reader can see, there is no alteration of the text. There is merely a
variation in the translations. The textual variations are trivial and do not alter
the meaning. The Bible is simply saying that at death we dissolve into dust
and the animating spirit returns to God.
36. The WTS book You Can Live Forever in Paradise on Earth states on page
147, Bible evidence shows that in the year 1914 C.E. God s time arrived for
Christ to return and begin ruling. It also states In the same way, Christ s
return does not mean that he literally comes back to this earth. Rather, it means
that he takes Kingdom power toward this earth and turns his attention to it. In
1Cor 11:26, Paul writes, "For as often as you eat this loaf and drink this cup,
you keep proclaiming the death of the Lord, UNTIL HE ARRIVES." If Christ
arrived in 1914, why do Jehovah's Witnesses continue to partake of the bread
and wine? Shouldn't they have stopped in 1914?
43
Not necessarily. Whether Jesus' parousia began in 1914 or will begin at
some future time, the expression "until he arrives," as it relates to the
legitimate partakers of the bread and wine, has to do with Jesus arriving to
receive his bride-like congregation to himself. Jesus said that the final
gathering of his chosen ones will occur during his presence, during a time of
unprecedented global tribulation. Obviously, when the last surviving member
of the bride of Christ has died, and the marriage of the Lamb takes place in
heaven, then there will be no more ceremonial eating of the emblems of
Christ's death. He will have fully arrived at that time.
37. In Acts 2:26-27, Peter, referring to the time the dead Jesus spent in the
tomb, quotes David referring to Christ, On this account my heart became
cheerful and my tongue greatly rejoiced. Moreover, even MY FLESH WILL
RESIDE IN HOPE, because you will not leave my soul in Hades& If Jesus
body was destroyed while he was in the tomb, why does he say that his flesh
will reside in hope ? For what hope was his flesh residing? If there is no
conscious awareness after death, how could he hope , in the first place?
Peter was quoting from the 16th Psalm. In that Psalm, David was expressing
his confidence in the resurrection. David said that while he was alive, "my
own flesh will reside in security." David was not saying that his flesh
resided in security after his death. We can rightly assume that David's corpse
rotted in the grave. Peter indicated as much when he went on to say in the
29th verse: "Men, brothers, it is allowable to speak with freeness of
speech to you concerning the family head David, that he both deceased
and was buried and his tomb is among us to this day." David's flesh
resided in security while he was alive, because of the hope of the
resurrection.
As it applies to Jesus, Jesus also had the hope of a resurrection. He was
secure in the knowledge that Jehovah would resurrect him and not leave him
to rot in the grave. That is why he was willing to die in the first place, because
he had hope. Hebrews 12:2 says the same thing: "For the joy that was set
before him he endured a torture stake, despising shame, and has sat
down at the right hand of the throne of God."
38. In the NWT, every time the Greek word "proskuneo" ( ) is used in reference
to God, it is translated as "worship" (Rev 5:14, 7:11, 11:16, 19:4, Jn 4:20, etc.).
44
Every time "proskuneo" is used in reference to Jesus, it is translated as
"obeisance" (Mt 14:33, 28:9, 28:17, Lk 24:52, Heb 1:6, etc.), even though it is
the same word in the Greek (see Gr-Engl Interlinear). Especially compare the
Greek word "proskunhsan" used with reference to God in Rev 5:14, 7:11,
11:16, and 19:4 and the same exact word used with reference to Christ in Mt
14:33, 28:9, and 28:17. What is the reason for this inconsistency in translation?
If the NWT was consistent in translating "proskuneo" as "worship", how
would the verses above referring to Christ read?
The questioner supposes that words do not have variations in meaning
depending on the context of their usage. However, according to Strong's
lexicon "proskuneo" has several nuances in meaning, and is used to denote
doing an act of respect before a human ruler or dignitary. It is not always [ Pobierz całość w formacie PDF ]
zanotowane.pl doc.pisz.pl pdf.pisz.pl szkicerysunki.xlx.pl
As the firstborn Son of all Creation, Jesus is unique among all of God's sons,
in that he was the first and only creature directly created by Jehovah. All
[others] were created through the Son. That is why, in fact, Jesus is called
the only-begotten Son of God. Jesus is also the first creature raised from the
dead to immortality. That's why the Bible calls him the "firstborn from the
dead." At Colossians 1:18, Paul said of Christ: "He is the beginning, the
firstborn from the dead, that he might become the one who is first in all
things." The next verse goes on to show that it pleased God to make his son
first in all things.
Jesus is "last" in the sense that he will never be surpassed in glory by any
fellow creature. He will always be the closest to God.
34. Since the WTS prohibits the use of blood transfusions, why does it permit
the infusion of albumin, clotting factors, and gamma globulins, all of which are
components of human blood and are derived from human blood? Since Acts
15:29 clearly refers to the old Jewish law of not EATING blood (Gen 9:4, Lev
3:17, Deut 12:16), and since the WTS has changed its teachings on other major
health related issues like vaccinations, organ transplantations, and its
opposition to tonsillectomies (Golden Age, 4/7/26, pg 438), etc. and simply calls
these changes "New Light", how can you be sure they won't some day change
their teachings on blood transfusions and refer to that change as "New Light"
also?
The Watchtower may very well drop the prohibition on taking blood
transfusions some day. It is not likely, but neither is it out of the question
either. It doesn't really matter though whether they do or don't. Jehovah's
Witnesses know what the Bible teaches on that topic and each of us that are
spiritually mature know that we will eventually stand before Jehovah in
judgment.
35. If the NWT is the most accurate word for word translation of the Bible, why
does it alter the written word of God by adding the words itself and [true]
in Eccl 12:7 when these words don t exist in the Hebrew? How would this verse
read without the addition of these words? What does scripture say about adding
42
words to the Bible? See Prov 30:5-6. If what the WTS teaches about the spirit of
man is correct, then how can the spirit of a man return to God after the body
dies and returns to the earth?
The NWT has not altered the Word of God. The bracketed word [itself] is
innocuous and changes nothing. As for the expression [true] God: The New
World Translation explains in its appendix that there are several hundred
places in Scripture where the Hebrew word for God, Elohim, is preceded by
the definite article. When that occurs in reference to Jehovah, the NWT
always uses the expression "[true] God" in order to make the distinction.
Literally the expression should say "the God," but that is an awkward
expression in English. So, the translators used a word that distinguishes the
expression "the God" from the ordinary use of Elohim without the definite
article. As for the spirit returning to the true God who gave it, that simply
means that the dead person's future life's prospects rest with God. In the
NIV, Ecclesiastes 12:7 reads: "and the dust returns to the ground it came
from, and the spirit returns to God who gave it." The CEV reads: "So our
bodies return to the earth, and the life-giving breath returns to God"
The Message Bible reads: "The body is put back in the same ground it
came from. The spirit returns to God, who first breathed it."
The NWT reads: "The dust returns to the earth, just as it happened to be
and the spirit itself returns to the [true] God who gave it."
As any reader can see, there is no alteration of the text. There is merely a
variation in the translations. The textual variations are trivial and do not alter
the meaning. The Bible is simply saying that at death we dissolve into dust
and the animating spirit returns to God.
36. The WTS book You Can Live Forever in Paradise on Earth states on page
147, Bible evidence shows that in the year 1914 C.E. God s time arrived for
Christ to return and begin ruling. It also states In the same way, Christ s
return does not mean that he literally comes back to this earth. Rather, it means
that he takes Kingdom power toward this earth and turns his attention to it. In
1Cor 11:26, Paul writes, "For as often as you eat this loaf and drink this cup,
you keep proclaiming the death of the Lord, UNTIL HE ARRIVES." If Christ
arrived in 1914, why do Jehovah's Witnesses continue to partake of the bread
and wine? Shouldn't they have stopped in 1914?
43
Not necessarily. Whether Jesus' parousia began in 1914 or will begin at
some future time, the expression "until he arrives," as it relates to the
legitimate partakers of the bread and wine, has to do with Jesus arriving to
receive his bride-like congregation to himself. Jesus said that the final
gathering of his chosen ones will occur during his presence, during a time of
unprecedented global tribulation. Obviously, when the last surviving member
of the bride of Christ has died, and the marriage of the Lamb takes place in
heaven, then there will be no more ceremonial eating of the emblems of
Christ's death. He will have fully arrived at that time.
37. In Acts 2:26-27, Peter, referring to the time the dead Jesus spent in the
tomb, quotes David referring to Christ, On this account my heart became
cheerful and my tongue greatly rejoiced. Moreover, even MY FLESH WILL
RESIDE IN HOPE, because you will not leave my soul in Hades& If Jesus
body was destroyed while he was in the tomb, why does he say that his flesh
will reside in hope ? For what hope was his flesh residing? If there is no
conscious awareness after death, how could he hope , in the first place?
Peter was quoting from the 16th Psalm. In that Psalm, David was expressing
his confidence in the resurrection. David said that while he was alive, "my
own flesh will reside in security." David was not saying that his flesh
resided in security after his death. We can rightly assume that David's corpse
rotted in the grave. Peter indicated as much when he went on to say in the
29th verse: "Men, brothers, it is allowable to speak with freeness of
speech to you concerning the family head David, that he both deceased
and was buried and his tomb is among us to this day." David's flesh
resided in security while he was alive, because of the hope of the
resurrection.
As it applies to Jesus, Jesus also had the hope of a resurrection. He was
secure in the knowledge that Jehovah would resurrect him and not leave him
to rot in the grave. That is why he was willing to die in the first place, because
he had hope. Hebrews 12:2 says the same thing: "For the joy that was set
before him he endured a torture stake, despising shame, and has sat
down at the right hand of the throne of God."
38. In the NWT, every time the Greek word "proskuneo" ( ) is used in reference
to God, it is translated as "worship" (Rev 5:14, 7:11, 11:16, 19:4, Jn 4:20, etc.).
44
Every time "proskuneo" is used in reference to Jesus, it is translated as
"obeisance" (Mt 14:33, 28:9, 28:17, Lk 24:52, Heb 1:6, etc.), even though it is
the same word in the Greek (see Gr-Engl Interlinear). Especially compare the
Greek word "proskunhsan" used with reference to God in Rev 5:14, 7:11,
11:16, and 19:4 and the same exact word used with reference to Christ in Mt
14:33, 28:9, and 28:17. What is the reason for this inconsistency in translation?
If the NWT was consistent in translating "proskuneo" as "worship", how
would the verses above referring to Christ read?
The questioner supposes that words do not have variations in meaning
depending on the context of their usage. However, according to Strong's
lexicon "proskuneo" has several nuances in meaning, and is used to denote
doing an act of respect before a human ruler or dignitary. It is not always [ Pobierz całość w formacie PDF ]